CCMA Foundational Knowledge and Basic Science Practice Test

25 practice questions

Choose an answer, then check it under Show answer.

1. Question 1 of 25Hard

   A primary care practice reorganizes so that each patient has a personal provider who leads a care team, coordinates specialist and hospital care, and offers expanded access such as after-hours messaging. Which care model is the practice adopting?

   1. AA. Accountable care organization
   2. BB. Fee-for-service solo practice
   3. CC. Retail urgent care network
   4. DD. Patient-centered medical home
   Show answer to question 1

   Answer: D. Patient-centered medical home

   A patient-centered medical home is a primary care model built around a personal provider and team that coordinate all of a patient's care and improve access.

   Why the other options are wrong

   • AAn accountable care organization is a network of providers and hospitals sharing financial responsibility for a population, not one practice's care model.
   • BFee-for-service is a payment method, and a solo practice does not imply team-based coordination of care.
   • CUrgent care networks handle walk-in, episodic problems and do not serve as an ongoing coordinated primary care home.

2. Question 2 of 25Medium

   A family member provides full-time care for a patient with advanced dementia. The caregiver experiences severe exhaustion and requests temporary care for the patient for five days to rest. Which type of service is specifically designed for this purpose?

   1. AA. Respite care
   2. BB. Hospice care
   3. CC. Palliative care
   4. DD. Skilled nursing care
   Show answer to question 2

   Answer: A. Respite care

   Respite care provides planned, temporary relief to primary caregivers of individuals with chronic, debilitating illnesses or disabilities. Hospice care focuses on comfort care for individuals with a life expectancy of 6 months or less rather than short-term caregiver relief.

3. Question 3 of 25Medium

   A prescription reads: Sig: 1 tab po tid pc. Which instruction matches these directions?

   1. AA. One tablet by mouth three times a day before meals
   2. BB. One tablet by mouth twice a day after meals
   3. CC. One tablet by mouth three times a day after meals
   4. DD. One tablet by mouth every 3 hours as needed
   Show answer to question 3

   Answer: C. One tablet by mouth three times a day after meals

   Po means by mouth, tid means three times a day, and pc means after meals.

   Why the other options are wrong

   • ABefore meals is abbreviated ac, not pc.
   • BTwice a day is bid; tid means three times a day.
   • DEvery 3 hours is q3h, and as needed is prn; neither appears in this order.

4. Question 4 of 25Medium

   A patient's surgical history lists a cholecystectomy. Which organ was removed?

   1. AA. Urinary bladder
   2. BB. Gallbladder
   3. CC. Appendix
   4. DD. Spleen
   Show answer to question 4

   Answer: B. Gallbladder

   Chole means bile, cyst means bladder or sac, and ectomy means surgical removal, so a cholecystectomy is removal of the gallbladder.

   Why the other options are wrong

   • ARemoval of the urinary bladder is a cystectomy; the prefix chole points to the bile-storing gallbladder.
   • CRemoval of the appendix is an appendectomy.
   • DRemoval of the spleen is a splenectomy.

5. Question 5 of 25Easy

   A medical assistant is reviewing the provider's progress note and sees the acronym 'SOB' documented in the chief complaint. What clinical term does this represent?

   1. AA. Swelling of body
   2. BB. Signs of bleeding
   3. CC. Sudden onset of bruising
   4. DD. Shortness of breath
   Show answer to question 5

   Answer: D. Shortness of breath

   In clinical documentation, 'SOB' stands for shortness of breath, a common respiratory complaint. Signs of bleeding is incorrect because it is not an accepted medical expansion of this standard acronym.

6. Question 6 of 25Hard

   A 19-year-old woman at a normal weight has worn tooth enamel, swollen glands along the jaw and calluses on the backs of her knuckles. These findings are most consistent with which condition?

   1. AA. Anorexia nervosa, restricting type
   2. BB. Binge-eating disorder
   3. CC. Bulimia nervosa
   4. DD. Celiac disease
   Show answer to question 6

   Answer: C. Bulimia nervosa

   Repeated binge eating followed by self-induced vomiting can erode tooth enamel, enlarge the salivary glands and cause knuckle calluses. These signs at a normal body weight point to bulimia nervosa.

   Why the other options are wrong

   • AThe restricting type of anorexia involves severe food restriction and low body weight, not vomiting-related findings.
   • BBinge-eating disorder involves binges without regular purging, so vomiting-related signs are not expected.
   • DCeliac disease is an immune reaction to gluten that causes GI symptoms, not enamel erosion or knuckle calluses.

7. Question 7 of 25Easy

   A family practice employs a physician, a nurse practitioner, a licensed practical nurse, a registered dietitian and several medical assistants. Besides the physician, which team member is licensed to diagnose conditions and prescribe medications?

   1. AA. Licensed practical nurse
   2. BB. Registered dietitian
   3. CC. Nurse practitioner
   4. DD. Medical assistant
   Show answer to question 7

   Answer: C. Nurse practitioner

   Nurse practitioners are advanced practice registered nurses licensed to assess, diagnose and prescribe. Some states require a collaborative agreement with a physician, but prescribing is within their role.

   Why the other options are wrong

   • ALicensed practical nurses give basic nursing care under the direction of an RN or provider and do not diagnose or prescribe.
   • BRegistered dietitians assess nutrition and plan diets but are not licensed to prescribe medications.
   • DMedical assistants work under provider supervision and may not diagnose conditions or prescribe medications.

8. Question 8 of 25Medium

   A patient calls the office asking for a refill of oxycodone tablets that the provider prescribed after surgery. Which statement about this Schedule II medication is accurate under federal law?

   1. AA. It can be refilled up to five times within 6 months
   2. BB. It cannot be refilled; a new prescription is required
   3. CC. It can be refilled once if the pharmacist approves
   4. DD. It can be refilled by telephone order at any time
   Show answer to question 8

   Answer: B. It cannot be refilled; a new prescription is required

   Federal law does not allow refills of Schedule II controlled substances. The provider must issue a new prescription, usually electronically or in writing.

   Why the other options are wrong

   • AUp to five refills within 6 months is the rule for Schedule III and IV drugs, not Schedule II.
   • CA pharmacist cannot authorize refills of a controlled substance, and Schedule II drugs cannot be refilled at all.
   • DOral orders for Schedule II drugs are allowed only in narrow emergencies with prompt written follow-up, never as routine refills.

9. Question 9 of 25Easy

   While taking vital signs, a medical assistant notices a bluish tint to a patient's lips and nail beds. Which term should be used to describe this finding?

   1. AA. Cyanosis
   2. BB. Jaundice
   3. CC. Erythema
   4. DD. Pallor
   Show answer to question 9

   Answer: A. Cyanosis

   Cyan/o means blue, and cyanosis is a bluish color of the skin or mucous membranes that often reflects low oxygen levels. The provider should be told right away.

   Why the other options are wrong

   • BJaundice is a yellow color of the skin or eyes caused by excess bilirubin.
   • CErythema is redness of the skin, often from inflammation or irritation.
   • DPallor is unusual paleness of the skin, not a blue tint.

10. Question 10 of 25Medium

    A patient reports difficulty swallowing solid food and pills. Which term should the medical assistant use when recording this complaint in the electronic health record?

    1. AA. Dyspnea
    2. BB. Dyspepsia
    3. CC. Dysphasia
    4. DD. Dysphagia
    Show answer to question 10

    Answer: D. Dysphagia

    Dysphagia is the medical term for difficulty swallowing. Dysphasia is an impairment of speech and language comprehension caused by brain injury, making it a common homophonic distractor. Dyspepsia refers to indigestion or upper abdominal discomfort, and dyspnea refers to shortness of breath.

11. Question 11 of 25Medium

    A 52-year-old man with poorly controlled diabetes says he has been urinating large amounts many times a day. Which term should be used to document this symptom?

    1. AA. Dysuria
    2. BB. Oliguria
    3. CC. Hematuria
    4. DD. Polyuria
    Show answer to question 11

    Answer: D. Polyuria

    Poly means many or much and uria refers to urine, so polyuria describes excessive urine output, a classic symptom of high blood glucose.

    Why the other options are wrong

    • ADysuria means painful or difficult urination, not large volumes.
    • BOliguria means scanty urine output, the opposite of this symptom.
    • CHematuria means blood in the urine.

12. Question 12 of 25Easy

    Which plane divides the body into equal right and left halves?

    1. AA. Transverse plane
    2. BB. Midsagittal plane
    3. CC. Frontal plane
    4. DD. Oblique plane
    Show answer to question 12

    Answer: B. Midsagittal plane

    The midsagittal, or median, plane runs vertically through the midline and divides the body into equal right and left halves.

    Why the other options are wrong

    • AThe transverse plane divides the body into upper and lower parts.
    • CThe frontal, or coronal, plane divides the body into front and back parts.
    • DAn oblique plane passes through the body at an angle and does not create equal right and left halves.

13. Question 13 of 25Hard

    A 62-year-old woman receiving chemotherapy for cancer has severe nausea and pain. She wants to continue treatment aimed at curing her cancer. Which type of care can relieve her symptoms while she continues curative treatment?

    1. AA. Hospice care
    2. BB. Respite care
    3. CC. Palliative care
    4. DD. Custodial care
    Show answer to question 13

    Answer: C. Palliative care

    Palliative care relieves the symptoms and stress of serious illness at any stage and can be given alongside treatment meant to cure the disease.

    Why the other options are wrong

    • AHospice care is for people with a terminal prognosis who have chosen comfort care instead of treatment aimed at a cure.
    • BRespite care gives family caregivers short-term relief and does not target the patient's symptoms.
    • DCustodial care helps with daily activities such as bathing and dressing and is not medical symptom management.

14. Question 14 of 25Easy

    A mother tells the medical assistant that her 9-year-old son has had several nosebleeds this month. Which term should be documented?

    1. AA. Rhinorrhea
    2. BB. Hemoptysis
    3. CC. Hematemesis
    4. DD. Epistaxis
    Show answer to question 14

    Answer: D. Epistaxis

    Epistaxis is the medical term for a nosebleed.

    Why the other options are wrong

    • ARhinorrhea is a runny nose with watery or mucous discharge, not bleeding.
    • BHemoptysis is coughing up blood from the respiratory tract.
    • CHematemesis is vomiting blood.

15. Question 15 of 25Medium

    A 70-year-old woman tells the medical assistant that she gets short of breath and has trouble breathing whenever she climbs stairs. Which term best describes this symptom?

    1. AA. Apnea
    2. BB. Orthopnea
    3. CC. Tachypnea
    4. DD. Dyspnea
    Show answer to question 15

    Answer: D. Dyspnea

    Dys means difficult or painful and pnea means breathing, so dyspnea is difficult or labored breathing, here brought on by exertion.

    Why the other options are wrong

    • AApnea means an absence of breathing.
    • BOrthopnea is difficulty breathing while lying flat that is relieved by sitting up; her symptom occurs with exertion.
    • CTachypnea means a rapid breathing rate, a measured sign rather than the sensation of difficult breathing.

16. Question 16 of 25Easy

    A patient says he had a colostomy last year. Which description matches this procedure?

    1. AA. A visual examination of the colon with a flexible scope
    2. BB. Removal of the entire colon
    3. CC. An opening from the colon through the abdominal wall
    4. DD. An incision into the colon that is closed during the same surgery
    Show answer to question 16

    Answer: C. An opening from the colon through the abdominal wall

    The suffix ostomy means creating a new opening. A colostomy brings part of the colon to the abdominal surface so stool can exit into a pouch.

    Why the other options are wrong

    • AVisual examination of the colon with a scope is a colonoscopy, from the suffix scopy.
    • BRemoval of the colon is a colectomy, from the suffix ectomy.
    • DCutting into an organ is an otomy, such as a colotomy, which does not create a lasting opening.

17. Question 17 of 25Medium

    A dermatology practice asks patients to upload photos of a rash through the patient portal, and the dermatologist reviews them later in the day. Which type of telehealth is this?

    1. AA. Synchronous video visit
    2. BB. Remote patient monitoring
    3. CC. Store-and-forward
    4. DD. Telephone triage
    Show answer to question 17

    Answer: C. Store-and-forward

    Store-and-forward, or asynchronous, telehealth sends recorded information such as photos to a provider who reviews it later rather than in real time.

    Why the other options are wrong

    • AA synchronous visit is a live, real-time video exchange between patient and provider.
    • BRemote patient monitoring transmits ongoing data, such as daily blood pressure or glucose readings, from devices at home.
    • DTelephone triage is a live phone conversation to assess urgency, not a later review of uploaded images.

18. Question 18 of 25Hard

    While rooming a patient, a medical assistant learns that she skips medication doses because she cannot afford them and often misses appointments because she has no transportation. Which team member is best suited to connect her with community resources?

    1. AA. Social worker
    2. BB. Pharmacist
    3. CC. Radiologic technologist
    4. DD. Physical therapist
    Show answer to question 18

    Answer: A. Social worker

    Social workers assess social and financial barriers and connect patients with resources such as medication assistance programs and transportation services. The provider should also be told about the missed doses.

    Why the other options are wrong

    • BA pharmacist can suggest lower-cost drug options but does not usually arrange transportation or broader community support.
    • CRadiologic technologists perform imaging studies and do not address social or financial needs.
    • DPhysical therapists treat movement and mobility problems, not access to medications or transportation.

19. Question 19 of 25Hard

    A 50-year-old woman who has taken prednisone every day for 4 months says she plans to stop it today because she feels better. Why should the medical assistant alert the provider right away?

    1. AA. Stopping suddenly can cause adrenal insufficiency
    2. BB. Prednisone may be stopped only at bedtime
    3. CC. Stopping suddenly causes an immediate allergic reaction
    4. DD. Stopping will cause blood glucose to rise sharply
    Show answer to question 19

    Answer: A. Stopping suddenly can cause adrenal insufficiency

    Long-term corticosteroid use suppresses the body's own cortisol production. Stopping abruptly can cause adrenal insufficiency, so the provider usually tapers the dose gradually.

    Why the other options are wrong

    • BThe concern is the abrupt stop itself, not the time of day the last dose is taken.
    • CStopping a drug does not cause an allergic reaction; allergies occur when a drug is taken.
    • DPrednisone tends to raise blood glucose, so stopping it would not cause a sharp rise.

20. Question 20 of 25Hard

    During a busy clinic day, a medical assistant receives several requests. Which task is within the medical assistant's scope of practice?

    1. AA. Explaining to a patient what her abnormal lab result means for her diagnosis
    2. BB. Giving an intramuscular vaccine that the provider has ordered
    3. CC. Telling a patient to double his blood pressure medication after a high reading
    4. DD. Deciding over the phone that a caller's chest pain is only muscle strain
    Show answer to question 20

    Answer: B. Giving an intramuscular vaccine that the provider has ordered

    Medical assistants may administer medications and vaccines, including intramuscular injections, when a licensed provider has ordered them and state law allows it.

    Why the other options are wrong

    • AInterpreting results and explaining a diagnosis requires clinical judgment that belongs to the provider.
    • CChanging a medication dose is prescribing, which only a licensed provider may do.
    • DJudging the cause of chest pain is clinical assessment; chest pain calls follow office protocol and go to the provider or emergency services.

21. Question 21 of 25Medium

    A 28-year-old woman was just diagnosed with celiac disease. Which list contains only grains she must avoid on a gluten-free diet?

    1. AA. Wheat, barley and rye
    2. BB. Rice, corn and quinoa
    3. CC. Millet, sorghum and rice
    4. DD. Corn, buckwheat and amaranth
    Show answer to question 21

    Answer: A. Wheat, barley and rye

    Gluten is a protein found in wheat, barley and rye. People with celiac disease must avoid these grains and foods made from them.

    Why the other options are wrong

    • BRice, corn and quinoa are naturally gluten free.
    • CMillet, sorghum and rice are naturally gluten free.
    • DDespite its name, buckwheat is gluten free, as are corn and amaranth.

22. Question 22 of 25Medium

    An older adult patient with declining renal function receives standard daily doses of a medication. Over several weeks, the patient develops signs of overdose because the drug is eliminated more slowly than it is absorbed. Which concept explains this phenomenon?

    1. AA. Cumulative toxic effect
    2. BB. Therapeutic synergy
    3. CC. Rapid drug tolerance
    4. DD. Allergic desensitization
    Show answer to question 22

    Answer: A. Cumulative toxic effect

    A cumulative toxic effect develops when repeated drug doses build up in the bloodstream because the rate of administration exceeds the body's rate of elimination, frequently seen with impaired renal clearance. Rapid drug tolerance would cause a diminished therapeutic response over time rather than toxicity from drug buildup.

23. Question 23 of 25Easy

    A provider's note states that a patient has hepatomegaly. What does this term mean?

    1. AA. Inflammation of the liver
    2. BB. Enlargement of the liver
    3. CC. Pain in the liver
    4. DD. Removal of part of the liver
    Show answer to question 23

    Answer: B. Enlargement of the liver

    Hepat/o refers to the liver and the suffix megaly means enlargement, so hepatomegaly is an enlarged liver.

    Why the other options are wrong

    • AInflammation of the liver is hepatitis, which uses the suffix itis.
    • CLiver pain would be hepatalgia, which uses the suffix algia.
    • DRemoval of part of the liver is a partial hepatectomy, which uses the suffix ectomy.

24. Question 24 of 25Medium

    A mother tells the medical assistant that her 6-year-old son, who has been toilet trained for years, started wetting the bed and asking for a bottle after a new baby joined the family. Which defense mechanism best describes this behavior?

    1. AA. Repression
    2. BB. Regression
    3. CC. Reaction formation
    4. DD. Rationalization
    Show answer to question 24

    Answer: B. Regression

    Regression is a return to behaviors from an earlier stage of development during stress, such as the arrival of a new sibling. The provider should still evaluate new bedwetting.

    Why the other options are wrong

    • ARepression is unconsciously blocking painful thoughts or memories from awareness.
    • CReaction formation is acting the opposite of one's true feelings, such as being overly loving toward a resented sibling.
    • DRationalization is justifying behavior with logical-sounding but false reasons.

25. Question 25 of 25Hard

    A patient who is upset with his provider for a long wait says nothing in the exam room, then shouts at the medical assistant at the checkout desk. Which defense mechanism is he most likely using?

    1. AA. Displacement
    2. BB. Projection
    3. CC. Rationalization
    4. DD. Sublimation
    Show answer to question 25

    Answer: A. Displacement

    Displacement is redirecting feelings from their true source toward a safer target. His anger at the provider is released on the medical assistant instead.

    Why the other options are wrong

    • BProjection is attributing one's own unacceptable feelings to someone else, such as claiming others are angry.
    • CRationalization is offering logical-sounding excuses for behavior, not redirecting emotion to another person.
    • DSublimation channels unacceptable impulses into socially acceptable activities, such as exercise.

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