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GED Social Studies Practice Test

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25 practice questions

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  1. Question 1 of 25Easy

    A government increases spending on roads and schools but does not raise taxes or cut other spending. What is the most likely immediate effect on the government's budget?

    1. A. A larger budget surplus, because public works create tax revenue immediately
    2. B. No change in the budget, because spending and taxes are separate accounts
    3. C. A larger budget deficit, because spending rises while revenue stays about the same
    4. D. A lower national debt, because construction projects increase public assets

    Show answer to question 1

    Answer: C. A larger budget deficit, because spending rises while revenue stays about the same

    If spending rises without matching revenue, the gap between spending and revenue grows, increasing the deficit. A surplus requires revenue to exceed spending, and public works do not usually generate enough immediate tax revenue to offset their cost.

  2. Question 2 of 25Easy

    In one country, the government must approve every newspaper before it is published and arrests people who publicly criticize the president. These practices are most characteristic of which kind of political system?

    1. A. A parliamentary system that holds frequent elections
    2. B. An authoritarian system that restricts political opposition
    3. C. A democratic system with strong protections for civil liberties
    4. D. A federal system that shares power among states

    Show answer to question 2

    Answer: B. An authoritarian system that restricts political opposition

    Prior approval of newspapers and punishment for criticizing the leader are controls on speech that typify authoritarian rule. A democracy may regulate speech in limited ways, such as laws against libel, but it does not normally require government approval of all publications.

  3. Question 3 of 25Hard

    A consumer has $400 remaining in their monthly budget after covering necessary living expenses. Ranked in order of preference, their top three choices for using the funds are: (1) investing in an education savings plan that receives a $60 matching contribution, (2) paying down loan principal to save $32 in monthly interest charges, and (3) taking a weekend road trip. If the consumer chooses the education savings plan, what is the opportunity cost of this decision?

    1. A. The combined value of the interest savings and the road trip
    2. B. The $32 in interest savings from paying down the loan
    3. C. The $60 matching contribution received in the savings plan
    4. D. The $400 cash deposited into the education savings plan

    Show answer to question 3

    Answer: B. The $32 in interest savings from paying down the loan

    Opportunity cost represents the value of only the single next-best alternative foregone, not all unchosen alternatives combined. Because the loan repayment was ranked as the second choice directly after the education savings plan, the foregone $32 in interest savings is the opportunity cost. Combining the benefits of all unchosen options incorrectly assumes that both remaining options could have been chosen simultaneously with the same $400.

  4. Question 4 of 25Medium

    Read the excerpt from the Fifteenth Amendment to the U.S. Constitution (1870): "The right of citizens of the United States to vote shall not be denied or abridged by the United States or by any State on account of race, color, or previous condition of servitude." Based on the excerpt, which barrier to political participation did this amendment explicitly prohibit?

    1. A. Disqualifying eligible citizens from voting based on their racial identity
    2. B. Restricting voter registration based on an individual's biological sex
    3. C. Limiting voting eligibility exclusively to citizens who paid personal income taxes
    4. D. Requiring prospective voters to demonstrate literacy before receiving a ballot

    Show answer to question 4

    Answer: A. Disqualifying eligible citizens from voting based on their racial identity

    The Fifteenth Amendment directly forbids states and the federal government from denying the right to vote on account of race, color, or previous condition of servitude. The distractor concerning literacy tests is incorrect because, while literacy tests were historically used to suppress votes, the text of this amendment itself only explicitly names race, color, and servitude.

  5. Question 5 of 25Easy

    A price index for a representative basket of goods is 200 at the beginning of a year and 210 at the end of the year. What is the inflation rate for that year?

    1. A. 5 percent
    2. B. 210 percent
    3. C. 10 percent
    4. D. 2 percent

    Show answer to question 5

    Answer: A. 5 percent

    Inflation is the percentage change in the price index: (210 - 200) / 200 x 100 = 5 percent. A 10 percent answer mistakes the 10-point rise in the index for a 10 percent rate.

  6. Question 6 of 25Medium

    A state legislature wants to create a public university system. Under the constitutional division of powers, this action is generally which of the following?

    1. A. prohibited, because only Congress may establish public schools
    2. B. permitted, because education is not a delegated federal power
    3. C. prohibited, because the Tenth Amendment gives education power to Congress
    4. D. permitted only if Congress approves each state's curriculum

    Show answer to question 6

    Answer: B. permitted, because education is not a delegated federal power

    Education is traditionally a state responsibility because it is not delegated to Congress, so the Tenth Amendment reserves such powers to the states. The option requiring congressional approval misstates the relationship, since reserved powers do not require federal permission.

  7. Question 7 of 25Medium

    Read this excerpt from Article II: the President "shall nominate, and by and with the Advice and Consent of the Senate, shall appoint ... Judges of the supreme Court." Which statement best describes how Supreme Court justices take office under this excerpt?

    1. A. The President nominates justices, and the Senate must consent.
    2. B. The President appoints justices without any other approval.
    3. C. The House of Representatives elects justices by majority vote.
    4. D. The Senate nominates justices, and the President must consent.

    Show answer to question 7

    Answer: A. The President nominates justices, and the Senate must consent.

    The excerpt gives the President the power to nominate and requires the Senate's advice and consent before the appointment takes effect, which shares the power between two branches. The House of Representatives plays no role in confirming justices.

  8. Question 8 of 25Medium

    An investigation reveals that a sitting federal district judge accepted substantial payments from a private company in exchange for ruling favorably in several corporate lawsuits. In response, members of the public demand the judge's immediate removal. Which constitutional process reflects the system of checks and balances used to address this situation?

    1. A. The House of Representatives impeaches the judge, and the Senate holds a trial for removal
    2. B. The Department of Justice votes to permanently suspend the judge's judicial license
    3. C. The state legislature where the judge presides votes to recall the judge from office
    4. D. The president issues an executive decree removing the judge from the federal bench

    Show answer to question 8

    Answer: A. The House of Representatives impeaches the judge, and the Senate holds a trial for removal

    Federal judges hold lifetime appointments during good behavior and can only be removed through the legislative branch's impeachment process, where the House of Representatives impeaches and the Senate tries the case. The president does not possess the constitutional authority to fire or remove federal judges by executive decree.

  9. Question 9 of 25Medium

    Which statement best explains how the Mongol Empire increased contact between China and the Middle East in the 1200s and 1300s?

    1. A. Mongol rulers brought European scholars to China to run the government.
    2. B. Mongol rulers required all subjects to speak Chinese and follow Chinese customs.
    3. C. Mongol rulers protected trade routes, letting merchants and ideas move safely across Asia.
    4. D. Mongol rulers closed the borders of their empire to foreign merchants.

    Show answer to question 9

    Answer: C. Mongol rulers protected trade routes, letting merchants and ideas move safely across Asia.

    Under Mongol rule, the overland trade routes across Asia were guarded and relatively safe, so merchants, travelers, and ideas moved between China and the Middle East in larger numbers than before. Closing the borders would have reduced exchange, which is the opposite of what happened.

  10. Question 10 of 25Easy

    The president directs the Department of Justice to enforce a new federal consumer-protection law. Which branch's primary function does this illustrate?

    1. A. The executive branch
    2. B. Local governments
    3. C. The legislative branch
    4. D. The judicial branch

    Show answer to question 10

    Answer: A. The executive branch

    The executive branch, led by the president, carries out and enforces federal laws. The legislative branch creates the law, and the judicial branch resolves cases under it; neither is primarily responsible for directing enforcement.

  11. Question 11 of 25Medium

    Read the passage and answer the question. Consumer sovereignty refers to the power buyers exert over economic production through their purchasing choices. In a competitive market, buyers wield considerable authority because they can reject overpriced or inferior goods and choose alternatives from numerous vendors. This dynamic compels businesses to prioritize consumer preferences. In a pure monopoly, however, consumer sovereignty is sharply reduced. When buyers depend on a sole provider for an essential product, such as life-saving medicine or basic energy services, they must accept the seller's established price and conditions or go without the good entirely. Which statement best describes the difference in consumer leverage between competitive and monopolistic markets, as presented in the text?

    1. A. Consumers in competitive markets must accept seller conditions, whereas monopoly buyers negotiate lower rates.
    2. B. Consumers hold substantial leverage in competitive markets but minimal leverage when facing a sole supplier.
    3. C. Monopolistic markets grant consumers greater authority because individual purchases represent larger profit margins.
    4. D. Buyers in both market structures exert equal influence by boycotting products whenever prices increase.

    Show answer to question 11

    Answer: B. Consumers hold substantial leverage in competitive markets but minimal leverage when facing a sole supplier.

    The passage emphasizes that buyers in competitive markets exercise considerable authority by choosing among numerous vendors, whereas monopoly buyers have reduced sovereignty and must accept the seller's terms or go without. The suggestion that monopoly buyers negotiate lower rates directly contradicts the text, which explains that monopolists hold dominant pricing power. Hence, leverage is high under competition and minimal under monopoly.

  12. Question 12 of 25Medium

    In 1960, Country T had a birth rate of 45 per 1,000 people and a death rate of 25 per 1,000. By 2010, its birth rate was 42 per 1,000 and its death rate was 10 per 1,000. Which statement best explains what happened to the population between 1960 and 2010?

    1. A. The population began to fall because deaths outnumbered births.
    2. B. Growth sped up because the death rate fell much faster than the birth rate.
    3. C. Growth was caused mainly by people moving into the country.
    4. D. Growth slowed sharply because the birth rate fell.

    Show answer to question 12

    Answer: B. Growth sped up because the death rate fell much faster than the birth rate.

    Natural increase is births minus deaths: about 20 per 1,000 in 1960 but about 32 per 1,000 by 2010, so growth accelerated. The birth rate dipped only slightly, and births still far outnumbered deaths, so decline is not supported.

  13. Question 13 of 25Easy

    The due process clause of the Fourteenth Amendment is most directly concerned with limiting the actions of which level of government?

    1. A. The federal government
    2. B. Only local school boards
    3. C. State governments
    4. D. Foreign governments

    Show answer to question 13

    Answer: C. State governments

    The Fourteenth Amendment's due process clause applies to the states, while the Fifth Amendment's due process clause applies to the federal government. The other options do not match the text of the Fourteenth Amendment.

  14. Question 14 of 25Medium

    Passage: A state law allows a health agency to fine businesses for safety violations without any hearing. A trade association sues, arguing that the law denies businesses a chance to respond before being punished. The state's highest court agrees and strikes down the law. The court's action is best understood as an example of which check on government power?

    1. A. Popular election of the judges who decide such cases
    2. B. Legislative oversight of how an agency spends its budget
    3. C. Executive enforcement of standards written by an agency
    4. D. Judicial review of whether official actions follow legal procedures

    Show answer to question 14

    Answer: D. Judicial review of whether official actions follow legal procedures

    The court examined a law and invalidated it because it denied a hearing, which is judicial review of whether government action meets legal standards. Executive enforcement of agency standards describes the agency's own activity, not the court's decision to strike the law down.

  15. Question 15 of 25Easy

    Read the passage and answer the question. In a coastal town, officials set a rule that fishing boats may take no more than the number of fish the population replaces each breeding season. The rule has kept the fish population stable for many years. Which idea does the town's rule best illustrate?

    1. A. Cost-benefit analysis
    2. B. Eminent domain
    3. C. The tragedy of the commons
    4. D. Sustainable yield

    Show answer to question 15

    Answer: D. Sustainable yield

    Sustainable yield means harvesting a renewable resource no faster than it can replace itself, which is exactly what the rule requires. The tragedy of the commons is tempting because the fishery is a shared resource, but that idea describes what happens when users deplete a shared resource, not when limits protect it.

  16. Question 16 of 25Hard

    Read this summary of two party platforms. Both platforms say their goal is to reduce the federal budget deficit. Party P proposes to reach that goal by cutting spending on domestic programs. Party Q proposes to reach it by raising taxes on high-income earners. Which conclusion is best supported by these excerpts?

    1. A. The parties agree on both the goal and the method of reaching it.
    2. B. Only Party P is concerned about the size of the deficit.
    3. C. The parties share a goal but disagree about the best way to reach it.
    4. D. Both parties propose to raise taxes on high-income earners.

    Show answer to question 16

    Answer: C. The parties share a goal but disagree about the best way to reach it.

    Both platforms name deficit reduction as the goal, but one relies on spending cuts and the other relies on higher taxes, so they agree on the goal while differing on the method. The option claiming agreement on method ignores the different proposals, and only Party Q proposes raising taxes on high-income earners.

  17. Question 17 of 25Easy

    A nation with fertile land and a warm climate focuses on producing citrus fruits, while another nation with rich mineral reserves focuses on producing steel. Both countries trade their surplus goods with one another. Which economic concept best describes this arrangement?

    1. A. Domestic price regulation by central planners
    2. B. Implementation of protective trade quotas
    3. C. Nationalization of key industries
    4. D. Economic specialization based on resources

    Show answer to question 17

    Answer: D. Economic specialization based on resources

    Specialization occurs when a nation focuses on producing goods it can make most efficiently due to its natural resources or advantages, trading for other needs. Implementation of protective trade quotas is incorrect because quotas restrict imports rather than describe resource-based production and mutual trade.

  18. Question 18 of 25Medium

    Read the following account of the 1964 Freedom Summer campaign in Mississippi: 'Organizers from the Student Nonviolent Coordinating Committee (SNCC) and other civil rights groups recruited hundreds of predominantly white, northern college students to spend the summer in Mississippi. These volunteers assisted local activists in operating Freedom Schools and registering disenfranchised Black voters. Organizers understood that systemic violence against Black Mississippians was frequently overlooked by national media and federal officials. By bringing affluent northern students into the state, the campaign ensured that any harassment or violence directed at volunteers would attract national headlines, thereby pressuring the federal government to provide protection and enforce voting rights.' Which inference about civil rights strategy is supported by the passage?

    1. A. Volunteers intended to replace Mississippi state courts with federal military tribunals.
    2. B. Organizers expected that educational programs alone would eliminate voting restrictions without legislation.
    3. C. Activists believed that local Black residents could not operate effective community organizations alone.
    4. D. Campaign leaders leveraged national media visibility to compel federal intervention in local abuses.

    Show answer to question 18

    Answer: D. Campaign leaders leveraged national media visibility to compel federal intervention in local abuses.

    The text explains that organizers invited northern college students knowing their presence would draw major media attention to civil rights abuses, which in turn forced federal officials to take notice and intervene. The claim that local residents could not run effective organizations misrepresents the text, which shows that outside volunteers were recruited specifically to capture national publicity, not because local organizers lacked capability.

  19. Question 19 of 25Medium

    Common Sense was written in plain, direct language and drew on familiar references, including the Bible, rather than the Latin quotations common in learned writing of the day. What effect did this style most likely have?

    1. A. It persuaded British officials to grant the colonies' demands.
    2. B. It discouraged colonists from discussing politics in public.
    3. C. It made the case for independence understandable to ordinary farmers and artisans.
    4. D. It restricted the pamphlet's readers to university-educated men.

    Show answer to question 19

    Answer: C. It made the case for independence understandable to ordinary farmers and artisans.

    By avoiding learned quotations and using familiar language and examples, Paine reached a broad audience well beyond the educated elite. The claim that it restricted readers to the educated reverses the actual effect of a plain style.

  20. Question 20 of 25Hard

    Read the following excerpt from Brutus No. 1 (1787): 'This government is to possess absolute and uncontrollable power, legislative, executive and judicial, with respect to every object to which it extends... for by the last clause of section 8th, article 1st, it is ordained that Congress shall have power to make all laws which shall be necessary and proper for carrying into execution the foregoing powers...' Based on the excerpt, what was the author's primary warning regarding the proposed Constitution?

    1. A. The absence of an executive veto would leave the federal government unable to enforce its laws.
    2. B. The legislative branch would become completely subservient to an all-powerful national judiciary.
    3. C. State governments would use their tax revenues to overpower the federal congress.
    4. D. The Necessary and Proper Clause would eventually allow the national government to destroy state legislative power.

    Show answer to question 20

    Answer: D. The Necessary and Proper Clause would eventually allow the national government to destroy state legislative power.

    The Anti-Federalist author argued that the Necessary and Proper Clause gave Congress broad, unchecked authority that would eventually eclipse the powers of the state governments. The option suggesting that the legislature would be subservient to the judiciary is incorrect because the passage focuses on the expansive reach granted to the national legislature itself.

  21. Question 21 of 25Medium

    The Federal Reserve lowers its target for the federal funds rate. What is the most likely effect on business investment?

    1. A. Business investment is unchanged because the federal funds rate affects only consumer loans.
    2. B. Business investment decreases because saving becomes more rewarding.
    3. C. Business investment increases only if the government also cuts taxes.
    4. D. Business investment increases because borrowing costs are lower.

    Show answer to question 21

    Answer: D. Business investment increases because borrowing costs are lower.

    The federal funds rate influences many other interest rates, including those on business loans. Lower rates reduce the cost of financing new equipment and expansion, encouraging investment. The distractor that investment decreases confuses lower borrowing costs with lower returns on saving.

  22. Question 22 of 25Hard

    An account notes that during the war, with millions in the armed forces and factories at full capacity, incomes rose, but consumer goods such as cars, refrigerators, and tires were largely unavailable. Households saved a larger share of their income and bought war bonds. Which conclusion best explains this pattern?

    1. A. With few goods to buy, households saved or lent their earnings to the government.
    2. B. The government banned personal savings accounts for the war's duration.
    3. C. Falling wages forced families to cut back sharply on all spending.
    4. D. Consumer goods were plentiful but priced too high for most families.

    Show answer to question 22

    Answer: A. With few goods to buy, households saved or lent their earnings to the government.

    Factories were making weapons instead of consumer goods, so rising incomes had few places to go except savings and war bonds. The account says incomes rose, which rules out the claim that falling wages caused the cutback.

  23. Question 23 of 25Hard

    A market report shows that over the past year the average price of tablet computers fell while the number of tablets sold rose. Which change best explains this pattern?

    1. A. A decrease in demand, such as falling consumer interest
    2. B. An increase in demand, such as greater consumer interest
    3. C. An increase in supply, such as lower production costs
    4. D. A decrease in supply, such as higher production costs

    Show answer to question 23

    Answer: C. An increase in supply, such as lower production costs

    An increase in supply lowers the equilibrium price and raises the quantity sold, which matches the report. An increase in demand would raise the price rather than lower it, and a decrease in supply would raise the price and reduce sales.

  24. Question 24 of 25Hard

    A meteorological chart plots the positions of four monitoring buoys in the Atlantic Ocean using latitude and longitude: Buoy 1: 35 degrees N, 65 degrees W Buoy 2: 20 degrees N, 65 degrees W Buoy 3: 20 degrees N, 40 degrees W Buoy 4: 35 degrees N, 40 degrees W Latitude measures degrees north or south of the Equator (0 degrees), while longitude measures degrees east or west of the Prime Meridian (0 degrees). Based on the coordinates provided, what is the relative position of Buoy 4 compared to Buoy 2?

    1. A. Southeast
    2. B. Northeast
    3. C. Northwest
    4. D. Southwest

    Show answer to question 24

    Answer: B. Northeast

    Buoy 4 is northeast of Buoy 2 because its latitude of 35 degrees N places it farther north than 20 degrees N, and its longitude of 40 degrees W is closer to the Prime Meridian than 65 degrees W, placing it farther east. The distractor northwest is tempting for readers who mistakenly assume a lower numerical value for west longitude represents a position farther to the west. The southern options incorrectly interpret the increase in northern latitude degrees.

  25. Question 25 of 25Hard

    Each of the three Reconstruction Amendments concludes with an enforcement clause stating that Congress shall have the power to enforce the article by appropriate legislation. In earlier constitutional history, amendments like the Bill of Rights largely acted as passive restraints against federal overreach. How did these enforcement clauses fundamentally alter American constitutional law?

    1. A. They weakened federal courts by giving Congress the sole authority to interpret rights.
    2. B. They restricted the executive branch from deploying federal troops during domestic unrest.
    3. C. They required states to obtain congressional approval before passing any local taxation laws.
    4. D. They empowered Congress to proactively intervene within states to protect individual rights.

    Show answer to question 25

    Answer: D. They empowered Congress to proactively intervene within states to protect individual rights.

    The enforcement clauses represented a major shift in federalism by granting the national legislature affirmative authority to pass statutes, such as the Enforcement Acts of 1870 and 1871, that regulated state actions and protected citizen rights. The idea that these clauses gave Congress sole authority to interpret rights is incorrect because the federal judiciary retained the ultimate power of constitutional interpretation through judicial review.

The full GED bank has 909 Social Studies questions. See plans

Social Studies on the GED test has about 35 questions in 70 minutes. Below are 25 original Social Studies practice questions, each with the answer and an explanation.

Source: GED Testing Service, test subjects.

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Questions, answered

Are these actual GED questions?

No. They are original practice questions written from the public exam outline, not questions taken from the exam. Exam owners keep live questions confidential.

How long is the GED Social Studies test?

About 35 questions in 70 minutes. Source: GED Testing Service, test subjects.

Is this GED Social Studies practice test free?

Yes. The 25 questions on this page, with answers and explanations, are free to use, and there is no sign up. The full GED bank of 4,541 questions, with timed section tests and an AI tutor, comes with a plan.

How should I use this practice test?

Answer each question before you open Show answer, then read why the correct option is right and the others are not. Note the topics you miss and review them first. The GED study guide has 12 lessons for Social Studies, listed on this page.

These are original practice questions written from the public exam outline. They are not actual exam questions. GED is a registered trademark of the American Council on Education. tests.global is not affiliated with or endorsed by GED Testing Service or the American Council on Education.

Updated November 1, 2026.