EMT Patient Treatment and Transport Practice Test

25 practice questions

Choose an answer, then check it under Show answer.

1. Question 1 of 25Medium

   A 52-year-old man was found in a closed garage with a car running. He has a headache and is confused. His pulse oximeter reads 99%. How should you manage his oxygenation?

   1. AA. Give high-flow oxygen despite the normal reading
   2. BB. Withhold oxygen because his saturation is normal
   3. CC. Give oxygen by nasal cannula at 2 L/min
   4. DD. Have him breathe into a paper bag to calm him
   Show answer to question 1

   Answer: A. Give high-flow oxygen despite the normal reading

   Standard pulse oximeters cannot tell carbon monoxide from oxygen bound to hemoglobin, so the reading may be falsely normal. Give high-concentration oxygen, which speeds removal of carbon monoxide.

   Why the other options are wrong

   • BThe saturation reading is unreliable in carbon monoxide poisoning, and withholding oxygen lets the poisoning continue.
   • CLow-flow oxygen is not enough to speed elimination of carbon monoxide.
   • DRebreathing into a bag lowers oxygen levels and is never appropriate for a poisoned patient.

2. Question 2 of 25Hard

   Shortly after receiving intranasal naloxone, an unresponsive patient suddenly regains consciousness, becomes agitated, and begins to gag. What is the EMT's immediate priority?

   1. AA. Apply a nonrebreather mask delivering high-flow oxygen over the face
   2. BB. Turn the patient onto their side and prepare to suction the airway
   3. CC. Administer an additional dose of naloxone to calm receptor activity
   4. DD. Restrain the patient to the cot using four-point soft restraints
   Show answer to question 2

   Answer: B. Turn the patient onto their side and prepare to suction the airway

   Rapid reversal of opioid intoxication frequently induces acute withdrawal, precipitating nausea, vomiting, and aspiration risks. Turning the patient into a lateral position and preparing suction protects the airway, which is the immediate life-safety priority. Placing a mask over an actively vomiting patient or attempting immediate physical restraint increases the danger of airway compromise.

3. Question 3 of 25Easy

   What is the main benefit of attaching a spacer to a metered-dose inhaler?

   1. AA. It doubles the dose released with each spray.
   2. BB. It allows the inhaler to be used without shaking it.
   3. CC. It converts the inhaler into a nebulizer.
   4. DD. It helps more medication reach the lungs.
   Show answer to question 3

   Answer: D. It helps more medication reach the lungs.

   A spacer holds the spray in a chamber so the patient can inhale it slowly, which reduces the amount deposited in the mouth and throat and helps more medication reach the lungs. It is especially useful for children and anyone who has trouble timing the spray.

   Why the other options are wrong

   • AA spacer does not change the amount of medication released by each spray.
   • BThe inhaler still needs to be shaken before use.
   • CA spacer is a holding chamber, not a nebulizer, which turns liquid medication into a mist.

4. Question 4 of 25Easy

   An adult patient has just finished a generalized tonic-clonic seizure. He is unresponsive but breathing adequately at 16 breaths/min with a clear airway and no signs of trauma. How should you position this patient?

   1. AA. Prone with the head turned to the side
   2. BB. Lateral recumbent to prevent aspiration
   3. CC. Supine with the legs elevated 6 to 12 inches
   4. DD. Semi-Fowler with the neck slightly extended
   Show answer to question 4

   Answer: B. Lateral recumbent to prevent aspiration

   An unresponsive postictal patient with adequate spontaneous respirations and no suspected spinal injury should be placed in the lateral recumbent (recovery) position to prevent aspiration of secretions or vomitus. Placing the patient supine increases the risk of tongue obstruction and airway compromise.

5. Question 5 of 25Easy

   An EMT is preparing to administer an epinephrine auto-injector to an adult patient experiencing severe respiratory distress from a known peanut allergy. Which anatomical site is recommended for this injection?

   1. AA. Anterolateral aspect of the mid-thigh
   2. BB. Upper outer quadrant of the gluteal muscle
   3. CC. Upper deltoid muscle of the arm
   4. DD. Subcutaneous tissue of the anterior abdomen
   Show answer to question 5

   Answer: A. Anterolateral aspect of the mid-thigh

   Intramuscular epinephrine should be administered into the anterolateral aspect of the mid-thigh (vastus lateralis) because this site provides the fastest and most reliable vascular absorption during anaphylaxis. Administering the medication into the deltoid or gluteal muscles results in delayed peak plasma concentrations, which can compromise resuscitation during an acute emergency.

6. Question 6 of 25Medium

   You arrive to find an 88-year-old man with terminal cancer in cardiac arrest. His wife shows you a valid out-of-hospital DNR order signed by his physician. What should you do?

   1. AA. Honor the order and withhold resuscitation, per protocol
   2. BB. Begin CPR because EMS must always attempt resuscitation
   3. CC. Start CPR and ask the hospital to decide about the order
   4. DD. Transport him with lights and siren without doing CPR
   Show answer to question 6

   Answer: A. Honor the order and withhold resuscitation, per protocol

   A valid out-of-hospital DNR order or similar medical order directs EMS not to begin resuscitation. Confirm the document is valid under local protocol, support the family, and follow procedures for an expected death.

   Why the other options are wrong

   • BEMS can withhold resuscitation when a valid DNR order is presented.
   • CStarting CPR ignores a valid order and the patient's wishes.
   • DEmergency transport of a patient with a valid DNR order in cardiac arrest is not indicated.

7. Question 7 of 25Hard

   An EMT is resuscitating a 32-year-old female who is approximately 30 weeks pregnant and in cardiac arrest. In addition to high-quality chest compressions and AED use, which specific manual maneuver should be performed?

   1. AA. Elevate the patient's legs 12 inches to promote venous return.
   2. BB. Place the patient in a full left lateral recumbent position for CPR.
   3. CC. Apply firm downward pressure over the fundus during each ventilation.
   4. DD. Perform continuous manual left uterine displacement.
   Show answer to question 7

   Answer: D. Perform continuous manual left uterine displacement.

   In advanced pregnancy, the gravid uterus compresses the inferior vena cava and aorta when the patient is supine, drastically reducing venous return and cardiac output during CPR. Performing continuous manual left uterine displacement shifts the uterus off the great vessels while keeping the patient supine for effective chest compressions. Placing the patient in a full lateral recumbent position prevents effective, deep chest compressions.

8. Question 8 of 25Easy

   A 44-year-old man has a knife impaled in his left lower abdomen. He is alert and asks you to pull it out. What should you do?

   1. AA. Remove it carefully, then apply direct pressure to the wound
   2. BB. Remove it only if the bleeding around it becomes heavy
   3. CC. Stabilize it in place with bulky dressings and secure them
   4. DD. Shorten the handle so it fits under a pressure bandage
   Show answer to question 8

   Answer: C. Stabilize it in place with bulky dressings and secure them

   Impaled objects are left in place and stabilized with bulky dressings, because removal can cause severe bleeding and more organ injury. Exceptions are an object in the cheek that blocks the airway or one that prevents CPR.

   Why the other options are wrong

   • ARemoving the knife may release pressure on injured vessels and cause uncontrolled bleeding.
   • BHeavy bleeding is controlled with pressure around the object; removal can make it worse.
   • DCutting or shortening the object moves it and can cause further injury.

9. Question 9 of 25Medium

   A 63-year-old man with an implanted defibrillator says it has shocked him three times in the past 15 minutes. He is alert but frightened, and his pulse is 92. What is the most appropriate care?

   1. AA. Reassure him that repeated shocks are normal and leave.
   2. BB. Turn off the device by pressing firmly over it.
   3. CC. Transport promptly, with the AED ready and close monitoring.
   4. DD. Have him drive himself to his cardiologist's office.
   Show answer to question 9

   Answer: C. Transport promptly, with the AED ready and close monitoring.

   Repeated shocks mean the device keeps detecting a dangerous rhythm, or it may be malfunctioning. He needs prompt transport with close monitoring and the AED ready in case he goes into cardiac arrest.

   Why the other options are wrong

   • ASeveral shocks in a short time are not normal and require evaluation.
   • BPressing on the device does not turn it off, and EMTs do not disable implanted defibrillators.
   • DDriving himself is unsafe, since another shock or a cardiac arrest could occur at the wheel.

10. Question 10 of 25Medium

    A 16-year-old athlete had a central incisor knocked completely out during a soccer game. You locate the intact tooth on the field. What is the most appropriate method to handle and transport the tooth?

    1. AA. Grasp the tooth by the root and immerse it in diluted hydrogen peroxide
    2. BB. Hold the tooth by the crown and place it in a container of cold milk
    3. CC. Disinfect the tooth with alcohol and seal it inside an airtight plastic bag
    4. DD. Scrub the tooth root clean with sterile water and wrap it in dry gauze
    Show answer to question 10

    Answer: B. Hold the tooth by the crown and place it in a container of cold milk

    An avulsed tooth should be handled exclusively by the anatomical crown to avoid damaging fragile periodontal ligament fibers on the root, and it should be transported in a specialized storage medium, cold whole milk, or sterile saline. Scrubbing the root surface or exposing it to harsh disinfectants like alcohol or hydrogen peroxide destroys the cells required for successful reimplantation.

11. Question 11 of 25Easy

    A newborn has copious secretions in the mouth and nose immediately after birth and displays signs of respiratory distress. Which technique should the EMT use when clearing the airway with a bulb syringe?

    1. AA. Depress the bulb syringe while the tip rests in the posterior pharynx
    2. BB. Insert the catheter tip deeply to elicit a vigorous cough reflex
    3. CC. Suction the mouth first, followed by the nostrils
    4. DD. Suction the nostrils first, followed by the mouth
    Show answer to question 11

    Answer: C. Suction the mouth first, followed by the nostrils

    The mouth should always be suctioned before the nose to prevent the newborn from gasping and aspirating oral secretions when the nasal passages are cleared. Depressing the bulb while it is already inside the airway can blow secretions deeper into the respiratory tract. Suctioning should be gentle and superficial, as aggressive deep pharyngeal suctioning can cause vagal-induced bradycardia or laryngospasm.

12. Question 12 of 25Easy

    How should an EMT care for abdominal organs protruding through a wound?

    1. AA. Cover with moist sterile dressings, then an occlusive layer
    2. BB. Gently push them back into the abdomen, then cover the wound
    3. CC. Cover with a dry, tight bandage to stop more protrusion
    4. DD. Leave them uncovered so hospital staff can inspect them
    Show answer to question 12

    Answer: A. Cover with moist sterile dressings, then an occlusive layer

    An evisceration is covered with sterile dressings moistened with sterile saline, then an occlusive dressing to keep the organs moist and warm. Never try to replace the organs.

    Why the other options are wrong

    • BPushing organs back can cause infection and further injury.
    • CDry dressings stick to and dry out the organs, and tight pressure can injure them.
    • DUncovered organs dry out, lose heat and become contaminated.

13. Question 13 of 25Medium

    A 32-year-old female who is 34 weeks pregnant has experienced a generalized tonic-clonic seizure lasting 2 minutes. She is currently postictal, with a blood pressure of 168/104 mm Hg, heart rate of 110 beats/min, and pedal edema. Which management is most appropriate?

    1. AA. Insert an oral airway and hyperventilate the patient at 24 breaths per minute
    2. BB. Maintain an open airway, administer oxygen, and transport in a quiet environment
    3. CC. Darken the room and wait for the patient to become fully alert before moving her
    4. DD. Place the patient supine and perform a vigorous tactile exam to assess uterine tone
    Show answer to question 13

    Answer: B. Maintain an open airway, administer oxygen, and transport in a quiet environment

    This patient is presenting with eclampsia, a life-threatening complication characterized by seizures and marked hypertension in late pregnancy. Management includes securing the airway, administering supplemental oxygen, positioning her in the left lateral recumbent position, and transporting rapidly in a calm, low-stimulus environment to prevent triggering recurrent seizures. Waiting for full alertness or performing unnecessary stimulating exams can induce further seizures and delays definitive care.

14. Question 14 of 25Medium

    A 17-year-old female with a history of asthma was experiencing severe dyspnea and loud wheezing 30 minutes ago. Upon arrival, the EMT notes she is now drowsy, cyanotic around the lips, and has a respiratory rate of 8 breaths/min with minimal chest rise. Auscultation reveals markedly diminished breath sounds without audible wheezes. What do these clinical findings indicate, and what is the primary management?

    1. AA. Resolution of severe bronchoconstriction; administer supplemental oxygen via nasal cannula at 2 L/min.
    2. BB. Spontaneous clearance of mucus plugging; place the patient in a lateral recumbent position and reassess.
    3. CC. Impending respiratory failure due to severe air trapping; initiate bag-valve-mask ventilations with supplemental oxygen.
    4. DD. Development of acute pulmonary edema; place the patient in a full Fowler position and withhold ventilations.
    Show answer to question 14

    Answer: C. Impending respiratory failure due to severe air trapping; initiate bag-valve-mask ventilations with supplemental oxygen.

    A 'silent chest' with absent wheezing in a patient with worsening mental status and bradypnea indicates critical airway obstruction, severe air trapping, and impending respiratory arrest, necessitating immediate bag-valve-mask ventilations. The disappearance of wheezing in an increasingly lethargic patient reflects inadequate airflow rather than clinical improvement. Administering low-flow oxygen via nasal cannula would fail to treat the underlying hypoventilation and respiratory failure.

15. Question 15 of 25Medium

    A 60-year-old man is wearing a nonrebreather mask. You notice that the reservoir bag collapses completely each time he inhales. What should you do?

    1. AA. Remove the mask and let him breathe room air.
    2. BB. Increase the oxygen flow rate to the mask.
    3. CC. Loosen the mask so more room air can enter.
    4. DD. Change to a nasal cannula at 6 L/min.
    Show answer to question 15

    Answer: B. Increase the oxygen flow rate to the mask.

    If the reservoir bag deflates completely with each breath, the flow is too low to meet his demand. Increase the flow until the bag stays at least partly inflated during inhalation.

    Why the other options are wrong

    • ARemoving the mask leaves a patient who needs high-concentration oxygen without it.
    • CLoosening the seal dilutes the oxygen with room air and lowers the concentration delivered.
    • DA nasal cannula delivers much less oxygen than a properly working nonrebreather mask.

16. Question 16 of 25Easy

    An EMT is preparing to assist an alert patient with using her prescribed metered-dose inhaler for an asthma flare-up. The EMT confirms the patient's identity, the medication name, the expiration date, and the prescribed dose. Which additional 'right' of medication administration must be verified before delivering the drug?

    1. AA. Right formulation
    2. BB. Right volume
    3. CC. Right route
    4. DD. Right weight
    Show answer to question 16

    Answer: C. Right route

    The standard rights of medication administration include right patient, right medication, right dose, right route, right time, and right documentation. Confirming the route ensures the medication is delivered via the correct physiological path (inhalation in this case). Parameters such as right weight or right volume may factor into dose calculations in specific circumstances, but they are not among the universal core medication rights.

17. Question 17 of 25Hard

    A 74-year-old man with a history of heart attack has stridor and a blood pressure of 78/40 mmHg after a wasp sting. His wife asks whether epinephrine is safe for his heart. What is the best response?

    1. AA. Epinephrine is never given to patients with heart disease
    2. BB. Give only half a dose to protect his heart
    3. CC. Epinephrine is still indicated for life-threatening anaphylaxis
    4. DD. Wait to see whether oxygen alone raises his blood pressure
    Show answer to question 17

    Answer: C. Epinephrine is still indicated for life-threatening anaphylaxis

    Epinephrine can strain the heart, but untreated anaphylaxis with airway swelling and shock is far more likely to kill him. There is no absolute contraindication to epinephrine in true anaphylaxis; give it per protocol and monitor closely.

    Why the other options are wrong

    • AHeart disease calls for caution and monitoring, not withholding a lifesaving drug.
    • BAuto-injectors deliver a fixed dose, and an inadequate dose may fail to reverse anaphylaxis.
    • DOxygen alone will not reverse stridor and shock from anaphylaxis.

18. Question 18 of 25Medium

    A 22-year-old male was thrown from a motorcycle and sustained a painful, swollen, and shortened right mid-thigh deformity. Primary assessment reveals an unstable pelvis with crepitus and multiple abrasions. Why is the application of a traction splint contraindicated for this patient?

    1. AA. Shortening and deformity of the mid-shaft femur
    2. BB. Presence of an unstable pelvic fracture
    3. CC. Presence of abrasions along the extremity
    4. DD. Mechanism involving high-velocity impact
    Show answer to question 18

    Answer: B. Presence of an unstable pelvic fracture

    Traction splints rely on counter-traction applied against the pelvis and ischium to stabilize an isolated mid-shaft femur fracture. When an unstable pelvic fracture is present, applying a traction splint can worsen internal bleeding and pelvic disruption, making it a strict contraindication. Abrasions, thigh deformity, and high-velocity trauma do not contraindicate traction splinting if an isolated femur fracture is present.

19. Question 19 of 25Medium

    A 36-year-old painter accidentally injected paint into his finger with a high-pressure spray gun. The finger has only a tiny puncture wound and mild swelling. What is the most appropriate approach?

    1. AA. Treat it as serious and transport for surgical evaluation.
    2. BB. Clean it and advise him to see his own doctor next week.
    3. CC. Squeeze the finger firmly to force the paint back out.
    4. DD. Apply a warm pack to help the paint dissolve and drain.
    Show answer to question 19

    Answer: A. Treat it as serious and transport for surgical evaluation.

    High-pressure injection injuries look minor on the surface but force material deep into the tissues, causing severe damage that often requires surgery. Immobilize and elevate the hand and transport promptly.

    Why the other options are wrong

    • BWaiting a week can lead to tissue death and loss of the finger.
    • CSqueezing can spread the injected material farther into the tissues.
    • DHeat can increase tissue damage and does not dissolve the material.

20. Question 20 of 25Hard

    A 34-year-old man was injured in a motorcycle crash. He is alert, with a heart rate of 118 beats/min and a blood pressure of 104/70 mmHg. How should these vital signs be interpreted under current field triage guidelines?

    1. AA. A heart rate higher than the systolic pressure suggests shock.
    2. BB. They are reassuring, because the systolic pressure is above 90.
    3. CC. Only the heart rate matters, and it is normal after trauma.
    4. DD. Vital signs are not part of current field triage guidelines.
    Show answer to question 20

    Answer: A. A heart rate higher than the systolic pressure suggests shock.

    Current field triage guidelines treat a heart rate greater than the systolic blood pressure as a sign of possible shock in adults, even when the systolic pressure is above 90 mmHg. He should go to the highest level of trauma care available.

    Why the other options are wrong

    • BA systolic pressure above 90 mmHg does not rule out shock when the heart rate exceeds it.
    • CA heart rate of 118 is elevated and, compared with his systolic pressure, is concerning.
    • DVital signs are a central part of the field triage guidelines.

21. Question 21 of 25Medium

    Responders apply soft restraints to an aggressive adult male under law enforcement supervision. Following restraint application, which action must the EMT perform next?

    1. AA. Administer oral sedatives immediately to maintain compliance.
    2. BB. Remove one limb restraint every five minutes to check cooperation.
    3. CC. Place a rigid cervical collar to restrict head movement.
    4. DD. Reassess the patient's distal circulation, sensation, and motor function.
    Show answer to question 21

    Answer: D. Reassess the patient's distal circulation, sensation, and motor function.

    Following the application of physical restraints, the EMT must immediately assess and continuously document the neurovascular status of all restrained extremities to prevent vascular compromise or nerve damage. Restraints should not be periodically removed to test cooperation, as this creates an immediate safety risk for both the patient and the crew.

22. Question 22 of 25Hard

    After a shock and 2 minutes of CPR, a 62-year-old man has a strong carotid pulse but is breathing only 6 times per minute. What should you do?

    1. AA. Stop all care and prepare for transport.
    2. BB. Continue full CPR with compressions.
    3. CC. Sit him upright and give him oral fluids.
    4. DD. Ventilate him with a bag-valve mask and oxygen.
    Show answer to question 22

    Answer: D. Ventilate him with a bag-valve mask and oxygen.

    With a return of spontaneous circulation, compressions stop but breathing must still be supported. A rate of 6 breaths per minute is inadequate, so ventilate with a bag-valve mask and oxygen, avoid overventilation, and keep reassessing.

    Why the other options are wrong

    • AStopping all care ignores his inadequate breathing.
    • BCompressions are not needed when he has a strong pulse.
    • CAn unresponsive patient with inadequate breathing cannot sit up or safely take fluids.

23. Question 23 of 25Hard

    An unresponsive 26-year-old female with suspected heroin overdose receives 2 mg of intranasal naloxone. Within 3 minutes, she awakens, becomes agitated, refuses transport, and demands the crew leave. What is the most significant clinical risk if she remains at the scene?

    1. AA. Heroin has a longer duration of action than naloxone, risking recurrent respiratory depression
    2. BB. Intranasal naloxone can trigger acute systemic hypertension leading to hemorrhagic stroke
    3. CC. Naloxone can cause severe delayed hypothermia and seizure activity
    4. DD. Repeated opioid receptor blockade can cause persistent cardiac arrest within one hour
    Show answer to question 23

    Answer: A. Heroin has a longer duration of action than naloxone, risking recurrent respiratory depression

    Naloxone has a shorter half-life than most opioids, meaning the reversal agent will wear off while dangerous amounts of the opioid remain active in the body. As naloxone levels decline, the patient is at high risk of relapsing into severe respiratory depression and unresponsiveness. Naloxone itself does not cause delayed hypothermia, hemorrhagic stroke, or direct cardiac arrest.

24. Question 24 of 25Medium

    A 34-year-old woman with a history of migraines reports her typical headache, with nausea and sensitivity to light. Her neurologic exam is normal. Which care is most appropriate during transport?

    1. AA. Use lights and siren to reach the hospital faster
    2. BB. Keep the patient compartment brightly lit for monitoring
    3. CC. Have her sit with her head lowered between her knees
    4. DD. Dim the lights, limit noise, and position for comfort
    Show answer to question 24

    Answer: D. Dim the lights, limit noise, and position for comfort

    A patient with a typical migraine and a normal neurologic exam benefits from a calm, dark and quiet environment while you transport and monitor for any change.

    Why the other options are wrong

    • ALights and siren add noise and stress and are not needed for a stable patient.
    • BBright light worsens migraine pain and nausea.
    • CLowering the head can worsen nausea and headache and is not recommended.

25. Question 25 of 25Hard

    A 52-year-old woman receiving chemotherapy for breast cancer has a temperature of 100.9°F (38.3°C) and feels tired. Her other vital signs are normal. Which statement is most accurate?

    1. AA. A mild fever is expected with chemotherapy and needs no care
    2. BB. She should take a cold shower and rest at home
    3. CC. She should wait 24 hours to see whether the fever rises
    4. DD. Fever during chemotherapy can signal a life-threatening infection
    Show answer to question 25

    Answer: D. Fever during chemotherapy can signal a life-threatening infection

    Chemotherapy can lower the white blood cells that fight infection. Even a modest fever in these patients may signal a serious infection that can progress rapidly to sepsis, so prompt evaluation is needed.

    Why the other options are wrong

    • AFever is not a normal effect of chemotherapy and must be evaluated.
    • BCooling at home delays evaluation of a possible serious infection.
    • CWaiting allows an infection to progress in a patient with weakened defenses.

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