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HESI A2 Anatomy and Physiology Practice Test

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25 practice questions

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  1. Question 1 of 25Hard

    Which cranial bone contains the sella turcica, a saddle-like depression that protects the pituitary gland?

    1. A. Sphenoid bone
    2. B. Occipital bone
    3. C. Ethmoid bone
    4. D. Temporal bone

    Show answer to question 1

    Answer: A. Sphenoid bone

    The sphenoid bone is a butterfly-shaped bone at the base of the cranium that features the sella turcica, which cradles the pituitary gland. The ethmoid bone lies anterior to the sphenoid and contains structures such as the cribriform plate and crista galli, but not the sella turcica.

  2. Question 2 of 25Medium

    In which part of the nephron does the majority of glucose and amino acid reabsorption occur?

    1. A. Proximal convoluted tubule
    2. B. Collecting duct
    3. C. Loop of Henle
    4. D. Distal convoluted tubule

    Show answer to question 2

    Answer: A. Proximal convoluted tubule

    The proximal convoluted tubule is responsible for reabsorbing nearly all glucose and amino acids back into the bloodstream. By the time the filtrate reaches the loop of Henle, these nutrients have typically been fully reclaimed.

  3. Question 3 of 25Medium

    A patient's core body temperature rises to 38.5°C (101.3°F) after a febrile illness. Which of the following homeostatic responses would be expected to counteract this increase?

    1. A. Shivering of skeletal muscles
    2. B. Constriction of blood vessels in the skin
    3. C. Dilation of blood vessels in the skin
    4. D. Increased secretion of thyroxine

    Show answer to question 3

    Answer: C. Dilation of blood vessels in the skin

    Negative feedback reduces the deviation from set point. Vasodilation brings warm blood to skin surface, promoting heat loss. Constriction, shivering, and increased thyroxine all conserve or generate heat.

    Why the other options are wrong

    • AShivering generates heat, which would further raise temperature.
    • BVasoconstriction reduces heat loss, which would worsen hyperthermia.
    • DThyroxine increases metabolism and heat production, counterproductive here.
  4. Question 4 of 25Medium

    Which neurotransmitter is released by somatic motor neurons at the neuromuscular junction to stimulate skeletal muscle fibers?

    1. A. Dopamine
    2. B. Acetylcholine
    3. C. Norepinephrine
    4. D. Serotonin

    Show answer to question 4

    Answer: B. Acetylcholine

    Acetylcholine is the primary neurotransmitter released at the neuromuscular junction to stimulate skeletal muscle contraction. Norepinephrine acts within the sympathetic nervous system and is not used at somatic motor synapses.

  5. Question 5 of 25Medium

    Which lobe of the cerebral cortex contains Broca's area, the specialized region responsible for the motor programming of speech?

    1. A. Parietal lobe
    2. B. Occipital lobe
    3. C. Frontal lobe
    4. D. Temporal lobe

    Show answer to question 5

    Answer: C. Frontal lobe

    Broca's area is located within the inferior frontal gyrus of the frontal lobe (usually the left hemisphere) and coordinates the muscular movements necessary for articulate speech. Wernicke's area, which governs the comprehension of written and spoken language, is located in the temporal lobe.

  6. Question 6 of 25Easy

    Which of the following vessels is responsible for transporting oxygenated blood from the lungs to the left atrium of the heart?

    1. A. Aorta
    2. B. Pulmonary veins
    3. C. Pulmonary arteries
    4. D. Superior vena cava

    Show answer to question 6

    Answer: B. Pulmonary veins

    Pulmonary veins carry oxygenated blood from the lungs back to the heart. Pulmonary arteries are the only arteries in the adult body that carry deoxygenated blood.

  7. Question 7 of 25Medium

    Which organ is responsible for filtering blood, reabsorbing nutrients, and regulating blood pressure via the release of renin?

    1. A. heart
    2. B. liver
    3. C. kidneys
    4. D. lungs

    Show answer to question 7

    Answer: C. kidneys

    The kidneys filter blood to remove wastes, reabsorb essential nutrients and water, and release renin to help regulate blood pressure through the renin-angiotensin-aldosterone system.

    Why the other options are wrong

    • AThe heart pumps blood but does not filter it or release renin; it secretes atrial natriuretic peptide (ANP) to lower blood pressure.
    • BThe liver filters blood and processes nutrients but does not release renin; it produces bile and detoxifies substances.
    • DThe lungs facilitate gas exchange and do not filter blood or release renin.
  8. Question 8 of 25Medium

    During a period of rapid muscle growth, a cell increases its production of steroid hormones. Which organelle is most likely to undergo an increase in surface area to accommodate this metabolic demand?

    1. A. Ribosome
    2. B. Smooth endoplasmic reticulum
    3. C. Rough endoplasmic reticulum
    4. D. Lysosome

    Show answer to question 8

    Answer: B. Smooth endoplasmic reticulum

    The smooth endoplasmic reticulum is the primary site for lipid and steroid hormone synthesis. While the rough endoplasmic reticulum is responsible for protein synthesis, it is not the main site for steroid production.

  9. Question 9 of 25Hard

    What is the primary difference between the matrix of cartilage and the matrix of bone?

    1. A. Cartilage contains more water, while bone is mineralized
    2. B. Cartilage is avascular, while bone is highly vascular
    3. C. Cartilage contains elastic fibers, while bone does not
    4. D. Cartilage is a liquid, while bone is a solid

    Show answer to question 9

    Answer: A. Cartilage contains more water, while bone is mineralized

    The bone matrix is characterized by a hard, calcified substance containing calcium salts, whereas the cartilage matrix is firm but flexible due to a higher water and proteoglycan content. While bone is indeed highly vascular, the fundamental compositional difference in the matrix itself is the presence of mineral salts in bone.

  10. Question 10 of 25Medium

    A rapid surge in the secretion of which hormone directly triggers ovulation during the female reproductive cycle?

    1. A. Luteinizing hormone
    2. B. Inhibin B
    3. C. Human placental lactogen
    4. D. Follicle-stimulating hormone

    Show answer to question 10

    Answer: A. Luteinizing hormone

    A dramatic spike in luteinizing hormone from the anterior pituitary gland weakens the follicular wall and stimulates the rupture of the mature follicle, releasing the oocyte. Follicle-stimulating hormone rises during the early follicular phase to stimulate follicle development, but luteinizing hormone is the critical trigger for ovulation. Human placental lactogen is produced by the placenta later in pregnancy.

  11. Question 11 of 25Easy

    During which phase of the cell cycle is DNA replicated to ensure that each daughter cell receives an identical set of genetic material?

    1. A. M phase
    2. B. G2 phase
    3. C. G1 phase
    4. D. S phase

    Show answer to question 11

    Answer: D. S phase

    DNA replication occurs during the S phase (synthesis phase) of the interphase. The G1 phase is primarily for cell growth, while the G2 phase prepares the cell for mitosis.

  12. Question 12 of 25Easy

    In myelinated axons, action potentials appear to leap rapidly from one gap in the sheath to the next. What are these unmyelinated gaps called?

    1. A. Nodes of Ranvier
    2. B. Synaptic clefts
    3. C. Axon hillocks
    4. D. Nissl bodies

    Show answer to question 12

    Answer: A. Nodes of Ranvier

    Nodes of Ranvier are regularly spaced gaps in the insulating myelin sheath along an axon where voltage-gated sodium channels are concentrated, facilitating rapid saltatory conduction. The synaptic cleft is the narrow fluid-filled space separating the presynaptic and postsynaptic membranes, not an unmyelinated interval along the axon.

  13. Question 13 of 25Medium

    Which statement accurately describes the anatomical relationship between the abdominal and pelvic cavities?

    1. A. A horizontal muscular partition completely divides the two compartments.
    2. B. No physical wall or membrane separates the two cavities from each other.
    3. C. A cartilaginous internal plate forms a distinct floor between the regions.
    4. D. A dense layer of parietal peritoneum seals the boundary between both spaces.

    Show answer to question 13

    Answer: B. No physical wall or membrane separates the two cavities from each other.

    The abdominal and pelvic cavities form a single continuous space known collectively as the abdominopelvic cavity, with an imaginary plane at the pelvic brim serving as the anatomical transition rather than an actual barrier. Unlike the division between the thoracic and abdominal cavities formed by the diaphragm, there is no physical muscular or membranous partition between the abdominal and pelvic spaces.

  14. Question 14 of 25Hard

    Which of the following best describes the anatomical position?

    1. A. Standing upright, facing forward, arms at sides, palms forward.
    2. B. Sitting with legs crossed.
    3. C. Lying face down.
    4. D. Lying on the side.

    Show answer to question 14

    Answer: A. Standing upright, facing forward, arms at sides, palms forward.

    The anatomical position is a standardized reference position used in anatomy: the body is erect, feet together, arms at the sides, and palms facing forward. This allows consistent description of body parts and directions.

    Why the other options are wrong

    • BSitting with legs crossed is not a standard reference position; it introduces rotation and flexion.
    • CLying face down is the prone position, not the anatomical position.
    • DLying on the side is the lateral recumbent position, not the anatomical position.
  15. Question 15 of 25Easy

    Which transport mechanism requires the expenditure of cellular energy in the form of ATP to move substances against their concentration gradient?

    1. A. Facilitated diffusion
    2. B. Active transport
    3. C. Osmosis
    4. D. Simple diffusion

    Show answer to question 15

    Answer: B. Active transport

    Active transport moves solutes from an area of low concentration to an area of high concentration, which necessitates metabolic energy. Facilitated diffusion and simple diffusion are passive processes that move substances down their concentration gradients without using ATP.

  16. Question 16 of 25Hard

    A clinician observes that a patient's blood is moving from the right atrium into the right ventricle. Through which structure must the blood pass to complete this movement?

    1. A. Bicuspid valve
    2. B. Tricuspid valve
    3. C. Mitral valve
    4. D. Semilunar valve

    Show answer to question 16

    Answer: B. Tricuspid valve

    The tricuspid valve is the atrioventricular valve located between the right atrium and the right ventricle. The mitral valve is located on the left side of the heart.

  17. Question 17 of 25Medium

    A patient's laboratory results show elevated serum thyroxine (T4) and suppressed thyroid-stimulating hormone (TSH). Which mechanism best explains the low TSH level?

    1. A. Positive feedback of high T4 stimulating additional TSH release
    2. B. Decreased hypothalamic thyrotropin-releasing hormone increasing pituitary TSH storage
    3. C. Negative feedback of high T4 on the anterior pituitary reducing TSH secretion
    4. D. Direct destruction of thyrotrope cells by excess circulating T4

    Show answer to question 17

    Answer: C. Negative feedback of high T4 on the anterior pituitary reducing TSH secretion

    The hypothalamic-pituitary-thyroid axis is regulated by negative feedback. High circulating T4 inhibits TSH secretion by the anterior pituitary, and TRH release by the hypothalamus, so TSH is suppressed.

    Why the other options are wrong

    • APositive feedback would raise TSH, but TSH here is low; the thyroid axis runs on negative feedback.
    • BLess TRH lowers TSH release; it does not explain the finding through increased pituitary storage of TSH.
    • DThyroid hormone does not destroy thyrotrope cells; it simply suppresses their secretion.
  18. Question 18 of 25Medium

    How do the lengths of preganglionic and postganglionic neurons typically differ in the parasympathetic nervous system compared to the sympathetic nervous system?

    1. A. Parasympathetic has longer postganglionic fibers; sympathetic has longer preganglionic fibers
    2. B. Both systems utilize postganglionic fibers of equal length
    3. C. Both systems utilize preganglionic fibers of equal length
    4. D. Parasympathetic has longer preganglionic fibers; sympathetic has longer postganglionic fibers

    Show answer to question 18

    Answer: D. Parasympathetic has longer preganglionic fibers; sympathetic has longer postganglionic fibers

    In the parasympathetic division, the preganglionic neurons are long and travel to ganglia near or within the effector organ, while postganglionic neurons are short. In the sympathetic division, the opposite is true, with short preganglionic and long postganglionic fibers.

  19. Question 19 of 25Easy

    Which part of the brain is primarily responsible for coordinating voluntary muscle movements, balance, and posture?

    1. A. Cerebrum
    2. B. Thalamus
    3. C. Cerebellum
    4. D. Medulla oblongata

    Show answer to question 19

    Answer: C. Cerebellum

    The cerebellum plays a vital role in motor control, specifically in maintaining balance and coordinating fine motor movements. The cerebrum is primarily responsible for higher-order functions like thought and memory.

  20. Question 20 of 25Medium

    The thoracic duct empties lymph into the venous system at the junction of which two blood vessels?

    1. A. Right internal jugular vein and right subclavian vein
    2. B. Left common carotid artery and left subclavian artery
    3. C. Left internal jugular vein and left subclavian vein
    4. D. Superior vena cava and inferior vena cava

    Show answer to question 20

    Answer: C. Left internal jugular vein and left subclavian vein

    The thoracic duct returns the majority of the body's lymph into circulation at the left venous angle, where the left internal jugular and left subclavian veins unite. The right internal jugular vein and right subclavian vein receive drainage from the right lymphatic duct, which clears lymph only from the upper right quadrant of the body. Lymph enters the low-pressure venous circulation rather than high-pressure arterial vessels.

  21. Question 21 of 25Hard

    Which of the following scenarios best illustrates a failure of homeostasis leading to a disease state?

    1. A. increased heart rate during exercise returns to normal after rest
    2. B. blood glucose rises after a meal and then returns to baseline
    3. C. shivering in response to cold
    4. D. persistent elevation of blood pressure due to chronic stress

    Show answer to question 21

    Answer: D. persistent elevation of blood pressure due to chronic stress

    Homeostasis keeps physiological variables within a normal range. Persistent elevation of blood pressure indicates that regulatory mechanisms are overwhelmed or dysfunctional, resulting in hypertension, a disease state.

    Why the other options are wrong

    • AThis is a normal homeostatic response: heart rate increases to meet demand and returns to baseline after rest.
    • BThis is normal glucose regulation; insulin brings glucose back to baseline after a meal.
    • CShivering is a normal homeostatic response to generate heat when body temperature drops.
  22. Question 22 of 25Hard

    The movement of the thumb across the palm to touch the tips of the other fingers is an example of which movement?

    1. A. Protraction
    2. B. Retraction
    3. C. Depression
    4. D. Opposition

    Show answer to question 22

    Answer: D. Opposition

    Opposition is a specialized movement of the first digit that allows it to touch the other digits. Protraction and retraction refer to forward and backward movements, respectively.

  23. Question 23 of 25Easy

    Which organ is primarily responsible for the mechanical breakdown of food through peristaltic waves and the mixing of food with gastric juices?

    1. A. Large intestine
    2. B. Esophagus
    3. C. Stomach
    4. D. Small intestine

    Show answer to question 23

    Answer: C. Stomach

    The stomach uses muscular contractions and gastric secretions to churn food into a semi-liquid state called chyme. While the esophagus moves food via peristalsis, it does not perform significant mechanical breakdown or mixing.

  24. Question 24 of 25Hard

    Which specialized epithelial tissue lines the urinary bladder and can change shape to accommodate varying fluid volumes?

    1. A. Simple columnar epithelium
    2. B. Pseudostratified ciliated epithelium
    3. C. Stratified cuboidal epithelium
    4. D. Transitional epithelium

    Show answer to question 24

    Answer: D. Transitional epithelium

    Transitional epithelium is a specialized stratified tissue capable of stretching and flattening without tearing as the urinary bladder and ureters fill. Pseudostratified ciliated epithelium lines the upper respiratory tract to move mucus, lacking the elasticity required for significant organ distension.

  25. Question 25 of 25Easy

    Which hormone is primarily responsible for increasing the concentration of glucose in the blood?

    1. A. Insulin
    2. B. Somatostatin
    3. C. Cortisol
    4. D. Glucagon

    Show answer to question 25

    Answer: D. Glucagon

    Glucagon is secreted by the alpha cells of the pancreas to raise blood glucose levels by stimulating glycogenolysis. Insulin performs the opposite function by lowering blood glucose levels.

The full HESI A2 bank has 390 Anatomy and Physiology questions. See plans

Anatomy and Physiology is one of the seven common sections of the HESI A2 from Elsevier, and your nursing program decides whether you take it and sets the number of questions and the time. Below are 25 original Anatomy and Physiology practice questions, each with the answer and an explanation.

Source: Elsevier HESI A2.

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Are these actual HESI A2 questions?

No. They are original practice questions written from the public exam outline, not questions taken from the exam. Exam owners keep live questions confidential.

How many Anatomy and Physiology questions are on the HESI A2?

It depends on your nursing program. Each program chooses the HESI A2 sections you take and sets the number of questions and the time, so ask your program which sections it requires. Source: Elsevier HESI A2.

Is this HESI A2 Anatomy and Physiology practice test free?

Yes. The 25 questions on this page, with answers and explanations, are free to use, and there is no sign up. The full HESI A2 bank of 4,961 questions, with timed section tests and an AI tutor, comes with a plan.

How should I use this practice test?

Answer each question before you open Show answer, then read why the correct option is right and the others are not. Note the topics you miss and review them first. The HESI A2 study guide has 9 lessons for Anatomy and Physiology, listed on this page.

These are original practice questions written from the public exam outline. They are not actual exam questions. HESI is a trademark of its owner. tests.global is not affiliated with or endorsed by Elsevier.

Updated November 1, 2026.